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The Timpson Lyceum · Real Analysis (2020)

Lecture 16 (Real Analysis 2020)

Overview

This lecture covers three related ideas. First is the Cauchy Mean Value Theorem, a generalization of the ordinary Mean Value Theorem to a pair of functions, proved using the same Rolle's-theorem trick. Second is a Cauchy-type remainder theorem (Theorem 4.24): by applying the Cauchy MVT repeatedly to a function whose first several derivatives vanish at a point, we extract a single point cc at which an nnth derivative captures the function's value — the machinery behind Taylor-series approximation. Finally, the lecture introduces Leibniz notation dydx\frac{dy}{dx}, reinterpreting the derivative as a limit of ΔyΔx\frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x} and showing why treating dydy and dxdx like a ratio makes inverse-function derivatives and implicit differentiation easy.

Key Concepts

Cauchy Mean Value Theorem (Thm 4.23). Let f,g:[a,b]→Rf, g : [a,b] \to \mathbb{R} be continuous on [a,b][a,b] and differentiable on (a,b)(a,b), with g′(x)≠0g'(x) \neq 0 for all x∈(a,b)x \in (a,b). Then there exists x0∈(a,b)x_0 \in (a,b) such that f′(x0)g′(x0)=f(b)−f(a)g(b)−g(a).\frac{f'(x_0)}{g'(x_0)} = \frac{f(b) - f(a)}{g(b) - g(a)}.

Rolle's Theorem (the engine of the proof). If hh is continuous on [a,b][a,b], differentiable on (a,b)(a,b), and h(a)=h(b)h(a) = h(b), then h′(x0)=0h'(x_0) = 0 for some x0∈(a,b)x_0 \in (a,b).

Auxiliary function technique. To prove the Cauchy MVT, define h(x)=f(x)−m g(x),m=f(b)−f(a)g(b)−g(a).h(x) = f(x) - m\,g(x), \qquad m = \frac{f(b)-f(a)}{g(b)-g(a)}. One checks h(a)=h(b)h(a) = h(b), applies Rolle's theorem to get h′(x0)=0h'(x_0) = 0, and since h′(x)=f′(x)−m g′(x)h'(x) = f'(x) - m\,g'(x), solving gives f′(x0)g′(x0)=m\frac{f'(x_0)}{g'(x_0)} = m (legal because g′(x0)≠0g'(x_0) \neq 0).

A function that "kills" its low-order derivatives. For g(x)=(x−x0)ng(x) = (x - x_0)^n, repeated differentiation gives g(k)(x0)=0g^{(k)}(x_0) = 0 for 0≤k<n0 \le k < n, while g(n)(x0)=n!g^{(n)}(x_0) = n!. (Example: g(x)=(x−a)4⇒g′=4(x−a)3, g′′=12(x−a)2, g′′′=24(x−a), g(4)=24=4!g(x) = (x-a)^4 \Rightarrow g'= 4(x-a)^3,\ g''=12(x-a)^2,\ g'''=24(x-a),\ g^{(4)}=24=4!.) This is the model behavior assumed in the next theorem.

Cauchy remainder theorem (Thm 4.24). Let II be an open interval, n∈Nn \in \mathbb{N}, and f:I→Rf : I \to \mathbb{R} have nn derivatives, with f(k)(x0)=0f^{(k)}(x_0) = 0 for all 0≤k<n0 \le k < n at some x0∈Ix_0 \in I. Then for each x≠x0x \neq x_0 in II there is a point cc between x0x_0 and xx such that f(x)=f(n)(c)n! (x−x0)n.f(x) = \frac{f^{(n)}(c)}{n!}\,(x - x_0)^n.

Leibniz notation. Starting from the difference quotient with Δx=x−x0\Delta x = x - x_0 and Δy=f(x)−f(x0)\Delta y = f(x) - f(x_0), dydx=lim⁡Δx→0ΔyΔx=lim⁡Δx→0f(x+Δx)−f(x)Δx.\frac{dy}{dx} = \lim_{\Delta x \to 0} \frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x} = \lim_{\Delta x \to 0} \frac{f(x + \Delta x) - f(x)}{\Delta x}. This is the same derivative as f′f', with xx now playing the role the base point x0x_0 played before. The symbol dydx\frac{dy}{dx} ("derivative of yy with respect to xx") is not literally a fraction, but in many situations it can be manipulated as if dydy and dxdx were separate quantities.

Inverse-function derivative. Since f−1f^{-1} undoes ff, (f−1)′(y0)=1f′(x0),i.e.dxdy=1 dy/dx .\big(f^{-1}\big)'(y_0) = \frac{1}{f'(x_0)}, \qquad \text{i.e.} \qquad \frac{dx}{dy} = \frac{1}{\,dy/dx\,}. Reading dxdy\frac{dx}{dy} as "xx as a function of yy" makes the reciprocal relationship transparent.

Implicit differentiation. When yy is defined implicitly by an equation in xx and yy, differentiate both sides with respect to xx, treating yy as a function of xx (so every yy-term carries a chain-rule factor dydx\frac{dy}{dx}, while dxdx=1\frac{dx}{dx} = 1), then solve algebraically for dydx\frac{dy}{dx}.

Worked Example

Implicit differentiation of a circle. Differentiate x2+y2=1x^2 + y^2 = 1 with respect to xx and solve for the slope dydx\frac{dy}{dx}.

ddx ⁣[x2+y2]=ddx[1]2x⋅dxdx+2y⋅dydx=02x+2y dydx=0(dxdx=1)dydx=−xy.\begin{aligned} \frac{d}{dx}\!\left[x^2 + y^2\right] &= \frac{d}{dx}[1] \\ 2x \cdot \frac{dx}{dx} + 2y \cdot \frac{dy}{dx} &= 0 \\ 2x + 2y\,\frac{dy}{dx} &= 0 \qquad \left(\tfrac{dx}{dx} = 1\right) \\ \frac{dy}{dx} &= -\frac{x}{y}. \end{aligned}

Check. At the top of the circle (x,y)=(0,1)(x, y) = (0, 1) the formula gives dydx=−01=0\frac{dy}{dx} = -\frac{0}{1} = 0, matching the horizontal tangent there. The expression is undefined where y=0y = 0 (the points (±1,0)(\pm 1, 0)), exactly where the circle has a vertical tangent — consistent with the curve splitting into the two branches y=±1−x2y = \pm\sqrt{1 - x^2} on [−1,1][-1, 1].

Summary